author: Tyson Liddell
tags: mathematics probability

Why do probability functions need to be countably additive?

The Kolmogorov axioms of probability include the requirement for countable additivity. That is, for disjoint sets $$A_1, A_2, \ldots \subset \Om$$, the probability function $$\prob$$ must satisfy $$\prob(\cup_iAi) = \sum_i\prob(A_i)$$. Recently, I've been wondering why the choice was made to include this axiom.

Let's start with some motivation{% cite grimmett_parp %} for the probability axioms. Given an experiment with a set of possible outcomes $$\Om$$, a $$\sigma$$-algebra $$\mathcal{F}$$ on $$\Om$$, and some event $$A \in \mathcal{F}$$, let $$N(A)$$ denote the number of times $$A$$ is observed to occur in $$N$$ trials. We know from experience that, if we repeat the experiment many times, $$N(A)/N$$ tends to some constant $$p$$ as $$N \to \infty$$, which we can call the probability of $$A$$ occurring. For clarity, we will refer to this idea as the relative frequency property of probability. Observe that $$0 \leq p \leq 1$$ and $$p$$ represents the relative frequency with which $$A$$ is expected to occur when running the experiment over and over. Suppose we want to define a probability function $$\prob:\mathcal{F} \to [0,1]$$ capturing the relative frequency property. Most of the probability axioms fall out naturally:

Why should we go any further than these three axioms above? Countable additivity would require that for any countable collection of disjoint events $$A_1, A_2, \ldots \in \mathcal{F}$$, the probability function satisfies $$\prob(\cup_{i}A_i) = \sum_i\prob(A_i)$$, and this requirement is included in most frameworks of probability theory, starting with Kolmogorov. However, we don't always need this property when trying to reason about probabilities involving a countable union of disjoint events.

Working without countable additivity

Proceeding with the axioms above (without countable additivity), consider the experiment of continually flipping a fair coin until it yields heads. Letting $$\omega_i$$ denote the outcome that the $$i$$th flip is a head, the set of all possible outcomes is given by $$\Om = {\om_1,\om_2,\ldots}$$. For any odd $$n$$, let $$O_n = {\om_1, \om_3, \om_5 \ldots, \om_n}$$ denote the event that a head occurs in the first $$n$$ tosses. Since the coin is fair, $$\prob(O_n) = 1/2 + 1/8 + 1/32 + \ldots + 1/2^n$$. The probability of a head occurring in the first $$n$$ tosses is

$$ \begin{align*} \prob(O_n) &= \prob({\om_1, \om_3, \om_5 \ldots, \om_n}) \ &= 1/2 + 1/8 + 1/32 + \ldots + 1/2^n \ &= \frac{1}{2}\left(1 + 1/4 + 1/16 + \ldots + 1/2^{n-1}\right) \ &= \frac{1}{2}\left(1 + \frac{1}{4} + \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^2 + \ldots + \left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^{(n-1)/2}\right). \end{align*} $$

Let $$O$$ denote the event that an odd number of flips occur before revealing a head. That is

$$ O = {\om_1, \om_3, \om_5, \ldots} = \bigcup_{\text{$i$ odd}}O_i = \bigcup_{\text{$i$ odd}}{\om_i}. $$

Since we can't use countable additivity and we don't know if $$\prob$$ is continuous, we can't observe the geometric progression above and immediately conclude that

$$\prob(O) = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{1-1/4} = \frac{2}{3}.$$

However, this solution can be arrived at with a different approach: squeezing the set $$O$$ between two other sets and applying properties of sequences. Indeed, since $$O_n \subset O$$ implies that

$$\prob(O) = \prob(O_n \cup (O \setminus O_n)) = \prob(O_n) + \prob(O \setminus O_n) \geq \prob(O_n),$$

and $$\prob(O_n) \to 2/3$$ as $$n\to\infty$$, it follows that $$\prob(O) \geq 2/3$$. Now, for any even $$n$$, let $$\widehat{O}_n = \Om \setminus {\om_2, \om_4, \ldots, \om_n}$$. Noting that $$O \subset \widehat{O}_n$$, similar logic to above can be used to show that $$\prob(O) \leq \prob(\widehat{O}_n) \implies \prob(O) \leq 2/3$$. Therefore, it follows that $$\prob(O) = 2/3$$.

Why include countable additivity

This previous result falls out easier with the requirement for countable additivity. With this property we can write $$ \prob(O) = \prob(\cup_{\text{$i$ odd}}{\om_i}) = \sum_{\text{$i$ odd}}\prob(\om_i) = 1/2 + 1/8 + 1/32 + \ldots + 1/2^n \ = 2/3 $$. But I find it interesting that it's not necessary here. It turns out consensus hasn't been reached amongst mathematicians and philosophers as to whether or not countable additivity should be included in the probability axioms. See the links below:

It seems countable additivity is a useful property that allows us to prove important results. As Kolmogorov himself said:

"We limit ourselves arbitrarily to only those models that satisfy Axiom VI [the axiom leading to countable additivity]. This limitation has been found expedient in researches of most diverse sort".